Can a wife (W) bind her husband (H) to a contract with a third party if she signs a contact in their joint names without his knowledge? I am assuming she can?

What if the third party was made aware by W that H did not wish to pay for the services she contracted for on their behalf? Does it make any difference if the third party also knew that W had no independent source of income?

If she contracted in her own (rather than joint) name, presumably H is liable come what may?

No, she can't.


No. He isn't liable at all.

Thanks. Are there any references you can point me to? (Are you a solicitor?).

Was the male escort agency bill a bit too steep this month dally ?

I wish that were all. Much more expensive than that.

I also have a question.

Can a man (M) seriously expect an internet message board (IMB) to solve the problems inherent in his manky mind?

Id reckon so

Not if the man (M) is mental. His wife (W) is not to blame for her husbands (H) condition. She, the wife (W) has attempted to seek psychiatric help for the husband (H) but he steadfastly refuses to use the services of his local NHS (NHS) as they treated his daughter (D) with total, and utter contempt.

Dally wrote:Thanks. Are there any references you can point me to? You'll find all the references you need right here Dally wrote:T (Are you a solicitor?). I'm an aardvark.

Dally wrote:Thanks. Are there any references you can point me to? You'll find all the references you need right here Dally wrote:T (Are you a solicitor?). I'm an aardvark.